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Old 12-20-2006, 10:55 AM   #1 (permalink)
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Yet another religious question...

So, I recently attended a Christmas concert at a friend's baptist church. It was my first pleasant church-going experience in a while. However, during the brief sermon at the end, the pastor made an interesting comment that I found quite contradictory. While talking about a few points he found faith critical to CHristian doctrine, he touched on the virgin birth being paramount in the belief system. That without believing that, you cannt be a true Christian. He further went on to say, "A true Christian cannot pick and choose what parts of the bible to believe."

So, I almost wanted to ask him whether he felt stoning homosexuals was still a good practice. Of course, as with many (most?) Christians, the old testament seems to hold much less weight. However, he did further talk about Joseph and how he kept things under wrap about Mary because she would be mocked by the townsfolk. He further said, "Though adultery provided for punishment by stoning" and quoted that portion of the old testament, he then said, "but this was no longer practiced at the time of Jesus' birth". So then, EARLY Christians (or really Jews at that time) were allowed to pick and choose which portions of 'God's Word' to believe, but we are no longer granted such right?

Can anyone explain in a LOGICAL manner why this might be?
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Old 12-20-2006, 10:58 AM   #2 (permalink)
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You should have asked the pastor if he keeps a Kosher kitchen...since that is also outlined in the old testament.

I remember there being a reason WHY this is, but don't remember what that reason is.
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Old 12-20-2006, 12:27 PM   #3 (permalink)
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Ironically enough, I resolve things like this by... not taking him literally. I know he said to take the bible literally, but he didn't really mean that literally. It was a figure of speech underscoring the importance of belief in the virgin birth. Sort of a,"you knew what he meant" kinda deal.
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Old 12-20-2006, 03:45 PM   #4 (permalink)
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The Logic Inherent in the System

Quote:
Originally Posted by xepherys

Can anyone explain in a LOGICAL manner why this might be?
In a word: No!
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Old 12-20-2006, 08:08 PM   #5 (permalink)
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Yes.

The priest is a shaman. Most shamans insist that it is very important to believe in the belief system that gives the shaman a special status.

It is also important that the shaman is the person who should interprit the belief system. Not many religions encourage individuals to interprit the scripture by themselves without serious guildance -- those that do tend to end up becoming quite fragmentary, and tend to disappear in a whirl of chaos after a short lifespan.

Religions that persist tend to have shamans that provide pre-packaged dogma, encourage parents to train their children to follow the dogma, and consider non-believers to be "less" than believers.

Religions who don't have that structure "drift" a huge amount. They lack the self-replication advantages of strong-shaman belief systems.

That a logical enough reason for you?
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Old 12-21-2006, 04:49 PM   #6 (permalink)
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[QUOTE=Yakk]Yes.

The priest is a shaman. Most shamans insist that it is very important toIt is also important that the shaman is the person who should interprit the belief system. Not many religions encourage individuals to interprit the scripture by themselves without serious guildance -- those that do tend to end up becoming quite fragmentary, and tend to disappear in a whirl of chaos after a short lifespan.


Yakk, is this what's wrong with suicide bombers?
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Old 12-23-2006, 12:19 PM   #7 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ourcrazymodern?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Yakk
Yes.

The priest is a shaman. Most shamans insist that it is very important to//

It is also important that the shaman is the person who should interprit the belief system. Not many religions encourage individuals to interprit the scripture by themselves without serious guildance -- those that do tend to end up becoming quite fragmentary, and tend to disappear in a whirl of chaos after a short lifespan.
Yakk, is this what's wrong with suicide bombers?
What do you mean by "wrong"?

Suicide bombers are a quite effective low-intensity-war weapon.

They have a decent kill ratio, and are pretty cheap to produce. You just need people who feel as if their lives on this earth are hopeless, and have alot of hatred for your target, and some explosives.

Hatred is always easy, and hopelessness just requires enough poverty.

So, if while fighting a low-intensity-war, having shamans encourage people to engage in suicide bombing is a pretty good idea.

On the other hand, religious strains such as this do get in the way of domestic tranquility. Eventually some set of shamans will get pissed off at how society is run, and the nation will have internal suicide bombing attacks.

If being a stable, productive nation is your goal, having shamans encouraging suicide bombings and other forms of zealotry isn't ideal.

But if that isn't your goal, and instead your goal is to attack nations with far more resources than you can hope to muster, the suicide-bomb tactic is pretty decent.

None of this really is good for the individuals involved. But I'm talking about the survival of elites and shamans, not the pleebs. The welfare of pleebs only matters insofar as it helps the elites/shamans (giving pleebs enough wealth to be content helps keep crime and revolution down -- so once your elites get rich enough, letting the pleebs have some resources is a pretty decent strategy), as far as the welfare of the elites/shamans is concerned.

There are advantages to religions that aren't centrally controlled. They exibit natural selection -- those more capable of convincing pleebs and shamans to follow them grow, others shrink, and others borrow from the successful ones. Nice groups of pleebs get snatched up by small cults. Overall, this should increase the religious infection rate amoung the populance.

This is backed up by patterns -- American Christianity is very decentrialized, and Americans have amoung the highest religious infection rates of first world nations.

In most other nations, as people become better educated and wealthier, shamans get less effective at maintaining or growing the infection.
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Old 12-29-2006, 12:33 PM   #8 (permalink)
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By "wrong" I guess I meant it's wrong to kill yourself.

Of course I could be wrong.

Is religion really philosophy, or is it sophistry?
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Old 12-31-2006, 01:21 PM   #9 (permalink)
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Isn't there a difference between insisting that someone must agree with every bit of 'holy writ' and insisting that someone shouldn't ignore bits of that writ without good reason?
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Old 12-31-2006, 01:42 PM   #10 (permalink)
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wasn't the virgin birth a mistranslation, young to virgin?
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Old 01-01-2007, 03:16 PM   #11 (permalink)
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Not necessarily. I don't actually know Greek, but it's pretty common for the same word to mean virgin and young woman. So it's probably ambiguous. But given that the belief in the virgin birth goes back to when the theologians actually spoke Greek as a living language, it's probably not a mistranslation.
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"The Germans believe that power must reveal itself in hardness and cruelty and then submit themselves gladly and with admiration[...]. They do not believe readily that there is power in meekness and calm."

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Old 01-01-2007, 04:22 PM   #12 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ScottKuma
You should have asked the pastor if he keeps a Kosher kitchen...since that is also outlined in the old testament.

I remember there being a reason WHY this is, but don't remember what that reason is.

you cant mix meat and dairy together, you've got to have a seperate kitchens with seperate utinsils. so that would excludes a vast majority of foods..there goes one of my favs..pizza...
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Old 01-01-2007, 04:32 PM   #13 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by xepherys
He further went on to say, "A true Christian cannot pick and choose what parts of the bible to believe."
Well, that's damn right. If you are a Christian you believe in God, and that the Bible was inspired by Him (not sure if the term is correct in English, but you get the drill). If you are picking parts of it then you are almost saying God ins't right in some matters. And to Christians, id est, those who believe in God, he is always right!

Quote:
So, I almost wanted to ask him whether he felt stoning homosexuals was still a good practice. Of course, as with many (most?) Christians, the old testament seems to hold much less weight.
Who cares, if I recall in the New Testament homosexuals are condemned as well.

Quote:
However, he did further talk about Joseph and how he kept things under wrap about Mary because she would be mocked by the townsfolk. He further said, "Though adultery provided for punishment by stoning" and quoted that portion of the old testament, he then said, "but this was no longer practiced at the time of Jesus' birth". So then, EARLY Christians (or really Jews at that time) were allowed to pick and choose which portions of 'God's Word' to believe, but we are no longer granted such right?

Can anyone explain in a LOGICAL manner why this might be?
Just put a bit of common sense to it, do you know of any custom that hasn't hold remnants? Just because it was not officially practiced, doesn't mean it wasn't practiced at all, or that it wasn't where Joseph and Mary were living.

Having said that, I never heard such a story, I'm not saying it is not true, just that I wouldn't put my hand on fire because of that.

Quote:
Originally Posted by ratbastid
Ironically enough, I resolve things like this by... not taking him literally. I know he said to take the bible literally, but he didn't really mean that literally. It was a figure of speech underscoring the importance of belief in the virgin birth. Sort of a,"you knew what he meant" kinda deal.
How can you take this any less literally?

If any one lie with a man se with a woman, both have committed an abomination, let them be put to death: their blood be upon them.

Leviticus 20:13 (Douay-Rheims)

Last edited by Jolly Johnny; 01-01-2007 at 04:49 PM.. Reason: Automerged Doublepost
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Old 01-01-2007, 10:12 PM   #14 (permalink)
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Easy enough. Some would argue that it's simply part of the purity law, and so doesn't apply to Christians any more than keeping kosher does. (The kosher laws were explicitly abrogated by the NT.) Others would argue that the sentence prescribed by the law was to be handed down by the Jewish civil state, and since we don't live in ancient Israel, we don't have to follow the prescribed punishments for those acts. And there are probably other explanations one could give.
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"The Germans believe that power must reveal itself in hardness and cruelty and then submit themselves gladly and with admiration[...]. They do not believe readily that there is power in meekness and calm."

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Old 01-01-2007, 10:40 PM   #15 (permalink)
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HEY GOD! A little help here?
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Old 01-02-2007, 01:02 AM   #16 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by asaris
Easy enough. Some would argue that it's simply part of the purity law, and so doesn't apply to Christians any more than keeping kosher does. (The kosher laws were explicitly abrogated by the NT.)
The kosher laws were, most others weren't...

Quote:
Others would argue that the sentence prescribed by the law was to be handed down by the Jewish civil state, and since we don't live in ancient Israel, we don't have to follow the prescribed punishments for those acts.
No one said so, now that the Church and State have nothing to do with each other, apart from some states like the Vatican, for instance.

However, for the believers it is still the word of God, therefore their actions are justifiable to them.

Btw, if you read only the new testament you will notice several passages where homosexuality is considered, among other things, an abomination deserving punishment.
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Old 01-02-2007, 03:00 AM   #17 (permalink)
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Disclaimer: I did not know that people in the US, interpreted the bible literally until I moved to the state of Georgia, five years ago. It's been an eye opener.

Here's a description of why the "old law" no longer must be followed:
Quote:
http://www.biblestudylessons.com/cgi...aw_today_1.php

A. Today We Must Obey the New Testament.
The reason the Old Covenant is not needed now is that Jesus replaced it with a different covenant, the gospel.

Hebrews 10:9,10 - Jesus took away the first will that He might establish the second. (cf. Heb. 8:6-9; 7:22; 2 Cor. 3:6)

Romans 7:4 - We are freed from the law to be joined to Christ.

Galatians 3:24-27 - We are not under the schoolmaster (old law) because now the gospel faith has come (cf. 1:11,12).

An illustration: The area we now call the United States was once ruled by Britain, then it was under the Articles of Confederation, and now we are under the Constitution. Likewise God provided for man first the patriarchal rule, then the laws at Sinai, and now the gospel or New Testament. We are no more subject to the Old Testament laws than we are to the Articles of Confederation.
This change occurred as a result of the death of Jesus.

Colossians 2:14 - He nailed the first ordinances to His cross.

Ephesians 2:13-16 - He abolished the old law by His blood.

Hebrews 9:16,17 - As with any will or testament, Jesus had to die to bring His testament into force. The old law was in effect until Jesus died, then it was replaced by the gospel. (Cf. Gal. 3:13; Rom. 7:4)
This New Testament contains commands we must obey.

Matthew 28:18-20 - Jesus possesses all authority so we must obey all His commands.

1 Corinthians 14:37 - The gospel contains the commands of the Lord.

1 Corinthians 9:20,21 - Though Paul was not under the law of the Jews, he was not without law but was under law to Christ.

James 1:18,25 - The gospel is the perfect law of liberty, by which we will be judged (John 12:48; cf. 1 Pet. 1:22-25; Rom. 6:17,18; Acts 3:20-23; Isa. 2:1-4).

God did not remove the old law so that we might be without law but so that we would serve Him under the terms of the New Testament. There are commands for us to obey, but these are the commands of the New Testament, not those of the Old Testament.
The New Testament will never be replaced by any law on earth.

Even while the Old Testament was in effect, God planned eventually to replace it. Will the New Testament also be replaced by some other system of commands for men on earth?

2 Corinthians 3:6-11 - The first covenant passed away so that it could be replaced by that which remains (does not pass away).

Hebrews 12:27,28 (cf. v18-29) - The law given at Sinai was shaken (removed) that it might be replaced by another (the New Testament) which will never be shaken but will remain.

The reason the Old Testament had to be replaced was that its sacrifices could not permanently remove guilt. The New Testament has the sacrifice of Jesus, which can remove all sins so they are remembered no more (Heb. 10:1-18; 7:11-28; 8:6-9; 9:11-28; Rom. 1:16; Mark 16:15,16). So there is no reason for God to remove it.

Jude 3 - The gospel faith was delivered to the saints once ("once for all" - NKJV, ASV). This word "once" is also used for Jesus' death in contrast to animal sacrifices (Heb. 10:10-14; 7:27; 9:12,25-28). Animals had to be repeatedly offered because they could not permanently remove guilt. Jesus offered the perfect sacrifice that need not be replaced by anything else. Likewise, the gospel is given to men "once." It is God's last word to man. It is so perfect, it will never be changed nor replaced by God while the world stands.
Here are examples of why there is till confusion of the validity of old testament law:
Quote:
http://bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuse...eVerseID/23252
Matthew 5:17 (King James Version)

5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
Quote:
<a href="http://64.233.161.104/search?q=cache:i9Nk0AShg7EJ:www.johnankerberg.org/Articles/_PDFArchives/editors-choice/EC3W1004.pdf+jesus+%22every+word%22+law+indeed+every+letter&hl=en&gl=us&ct=clnk&cd=4">Biblical Inerrancy: The Evidence—Part 3</a>

The above two verses establish the particularity of inerrancy (“jot,” “tittle”) and the extent of
inerrancy (all Scripture). As John Murray states of Jesus’ view, “We found it to be nothing less
than that of the infallible character and authority of the Old Testament. A higher view of plenary
or verbal inspiration we could not expect to find.”
5
Theologian Dr. Charles Ryrie also has relevant comments on these passages:
A jot is the Hebrew letter yod, the
smallest letter in that alphabet. It
looks much like an English apostro-
phe. The word tittle means a minor
stroke and refers to the almost
unnoticeable strokes which distin-
guish certain Hebrew letters from
others. For instance, the tittle that
differentiates a d (daleth) from an r
(resh) is a protrusion that in a
normal font of type would not be
more than 1/16 of an inch. Of
course the presence or absence of
the tittle could change the spelling
of a word and likely change the
meaning. The Lord was emphasiz-
ing that every letter of every word is
important, and what those words
say in sentences and paragraphs is completely accurate. In fact, they can be depended on to be fulfilled
exactly as spelled out letter by letter and word by word in all the promises of the Old Testament. Such a
specific statement by our Lord would have no meaning if the Scripture were subject to errors in the text.
John 10:33-36 is another passage where the Lord states that the Scripture cannot be broken. This is an
assertion that the entire Scripture cannot be broken and that the particular words being quoted on that
occasion cannot be broken. This is only possible because the Scripture is true in each particular and in all its
parts.
6
If it is easier for heaven and earth (i.e. the universe) to pass from existence than for the “least
stroke of a pen” to be lost, can we possibly believe Jesus thought there were errors in Scrip-
ture? John Warwick Montgomery comments on another statement by Jesus this time in Mat-
thew 4:4: “Christ tells us simply, quoting the God of the Old Testament, that ‘man shall not live
by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.’ One must therefore
operate with every word and consider every word as significant. Had God ‘intended’ otherwise,
the text would (by definition) be different from what it is!”
7
He makes the highly relevant observation, that “the weight of Christ’s testimony to Scripture
is so much more powerful than any alleged contradiction or error in the text or any combination of them, that the latter must be adjusted to the former, not the reverse.”
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Old 01-02-2007, 01:34 PM   #18 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by host
The reason the Old Covenant is not needed now is that Jesus replaced it with a different covenant, the gospel.
Just a note, Jesus didn't come to replace the Old Law, but to fulfill it. It says so in the Bible, you can trust that on me that have read it (I had strange ideas to get out of boreness when I was a teenager, yes...), but to be honest, can't really remember the passage...
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Old 01-12-2007, 12:33 PM   #19 (permalink)
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"I come that they may have life, and have it abundantly"?
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Old 01-12-2007, 10:17 PM   #20 (permalink)
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Yes, that's the fulfillment of the law.
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"The Germans believe that power must reveal itself in hardness and cruelty and then submit themselves gladly and with admiration[...]. They do not believe readily that there is power in meekness and calm."

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Old 01-13-2007, 11:56 AM   #21 (permalink)
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Well, let there be light!
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