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Originally Posted by MrSelfDestruct
Acting on pedophilia causes severe, irreversible harm to others, homosexuality does not. That's the difference. If someone is biologically attracted to children, it is their duty to society and especially to those who they may victimize to not act on those urges.
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Erm... Lemme' correct you on something.
Rape causes irreversible harm to others. A child having sex with an adult does not. If I go out and find some 11-year old (Not that I would) and forced him to have sex with me against his will, that'd be considered rape. If I find an 11-year old boy and ask if he wants to have sex with me (Again, not that I would, as that'd be
REALLY creepy), it wouldn't be quite the same thing. Sure, the law would probably deem the same two situations as the same but, fundamentally speaking, they're vastly different.
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Society has set up those numbers because early sexual activity is psychologically harmful to developing children. There are some exceptions because it's understood that teenagers will have sex, so it's pretty common to have a 2 year spread for underage couples or when one is underage.
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Forced sexual activity has been proven to be harmful to children, yes. Sexual activity in which they willingly participate in has not (Just so you know).
Edit: Since the majority of pedophiles are gay males, why is it 'wrong' to make a correlation between the two?
