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Originally Posted by Manic_Skafe
Most child molesters were abused children and the state of his childhood home should serve as an early insight as to why he turned out the way he did.
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According to Northwest Treatment Associates in Seattle, Washington, sex offenders statistically possess the following family history:
Witnessed sexual abuse 17%
Victim of emotional abuse 23%
Victim of sexual abuse 27%
Victim of family violence 30%Witness family violence 37%
Physically and emotionally isolated 47%
Dysfunctional family 100%
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Originally Posted by Infinite_Loser
Oh, but why is that? Remember... "You can't help who you're attracted too" (Or are you gonna' tell me that such an argument isn't valid?). Plus there are personal accounts from people convicted of pedophilia who have openly said that they didn't-- And still don't-- Understand why they feel the way they do, only that they have a certain attraction towards underage persons. I mean, can you really blame a guy for acting on feelings he was born with? I kinda' find it funny how the rationalization for one act seemingly becomes "wrong" when correlated to another.
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Acting on pedophilia causes severe, irreversible harm to others, homosexuality does not. That's the difference. If someone is biologically attracted to children, it is their duty to society and especially to those who they may victimize to not act on those urges.
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Originally Posted by Infinite_Loser
Anywho, "Consent" is an irrelevant concept simply because society has set up arbitrary numbers dictating at what age someone can and can't give willing consent. It doesn't mean anything in the natural sense.
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Society has set up those numbers because early sexual activity is psychologically harmful to developing children. There are some exceptions because it's understood that teenagers will have sex, so it's pretty common to have a 2 year spread for underage couples or when one is underage.