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Originally Posted by asaris
Well, first, God couldn't be ignorant of sin, since he's omniscient.
In any case, the law spoken of in this verse is pretty clearly the law of Moses, the Torah, since Paul explicitly states that even though sin was not imputed until Moses, death still reigned.
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How can you say sin was not imputed until Moses if Adam and all mankind fell from grace for breaking the law? Gods words to Adam were the first law, not the commandments of Moses.
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Originally Posted by Pip
Interpreting the Bible strictly as the word of God
Strictly speaking, Romans is the word of Paul. :P
Like others have said, he wouldn't have sinned because there was only one law: Don't eat that fruit! Also, before he ate of the fruit he was probably not able to even imagine or consider any action that we today would consider a sin, like, say, sodomising the sheep or murdering Eve. "
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From what we see of Adam's personality I think he would have considered all of it. Adam was easily persuaded to do anything because he had the mind of a child. He didnt have enough experiences to have a morality independent of a parents law and he was nieve about the world around him and easily manipulated.
Just like any other child, Adam would have commited many sins and just like any father God couldnt rightfully punish him for doing something he wasnt told not to do.
Sin was in the world before Adam and all around Adam. Sodomy and murder were options. Greed, wrath, envy, gluttony all of that was in the world. Adam wouldnt have been punished for any of those if he hadnt gained the knowledge of good and evil and subsuquently the rest law. That isnt to say God wouldnt have taught Adam those laws later.