Originally Posted by willravel

This I consider to be a gross exaggeration. In order to understand why, you must break down what it means to consent. Let's say that a woman goes out for a night on the town right after a break up. She is emotionally suceptable to the rebound relationship or even stress releiving sex. She is emotionally suceptable, and any man who can see this could use it to their advantge, but that is not rape, as she is consenting. Let's say that a woman goes to a man's house and watches porn. She becomes aroused and they have sex. She consented, therefore it was not rape. Both of these situations involved a form of subtle manipulation, but that does not make it rape. Rape is the crime of forcing another person to submit to sex acts, especially sexual intercourse. What lampajoo was asking about is not rape, legally speaking.

Do you know how my wife and I met? She was attracted to me because I was playing the piano (and my striking figure). Had I not been playing the piano, she probably would not have approached me. Am I guilty of raping my wife?

Actually, I'd call you an exaggerator, and probably someone who has personal connections with the issue of rape.