Entitlement is not something received by virtue of existance alone - as you state, paying taxes in a foreign country does not entitle you to anything. You are entitled only to what your government entitles you to - one of the conditions for that entitlement is that you are a legal citizen, or that you are working on a visa, or that you are seeking work - each 'entitlement' requires some condition to be met.
The situation of an attorney, I would propose to be a right, rather than an entitlement, because it is something that everyone, regardless of nationality, status, political or religious beliefs benefits from in the US. (Is that right? Could Michael Jackson have been granted an attorney in his trial if he'd asked for one? Or do you have to prove that you can't afford one first? If there are stipulations or conditions, then the right becomes an entitlement)
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I am an American citizen working and living in a foreign country. I do not pay taxes in the US, but none of my Constitutional Rights are forfeit.
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It sounds as though ALL your constitutional rights are forfeit. The things granted by different governments, and the conditions they apply to applicants wishing to benefit from those grants are all different. So in one country, you may only be entitled to vote if you are a Communist Party member, or only if you are in the intimate circle of the ruling family. If you are an American citizen, your entitlement to vote is taken away after you have been convicted of a federal crime (or so I've heard) So there is a condition placed on that so-called 'inalienable right' already.
A medieval king might grant land and a title, to one of his men - termed an 'entitlement' literally meaning 'bestowing someone a title'. Normally this would be done in order to show gratitude for services rendered, be they loyalty or whatever. However, it might also be done in return for services 'expected' to be rendered, i.e. collection of taxes, simply stewarding the land, or for defence. Either way, an entitlement is a conditional transaction.
If one of those Lords joined forces with a foreign power, would he still be legally 'entitled' to his land? I doubt the authority (The King) would think so.