11-10-2005, 05:26 PM | #41 (permalink) |
Degenerate
Location: San Marvelous
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All of this speculation is fun, but means nothing, and is mostly wishful thinking based on a desire for retribution on the unwashed, ignorant, bigoted masses of Texas who dared tell the king he had forgotten his trousers.
The amendment passed, its intent sufficiently well-documented that even the 9th Circuit Court would be at odds to rule that it meant anything other than defining marriage as between one man and one woman.
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Ceterum censeo Carthaginem esse delendam. |
11-10-2005, 06:19 PM | #42 (permalink) | ||
Junkie
Location: Some place windy
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11-13-2005, 09:05 PM | #43 (permalink) |
cookie
Location: in the backwoods
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here's a link to a pdf of the atty gen opinion interpreting the language, prior to the election. (it comes from a site supporting one side, but found it on a search-not propoganda, but a legitimate document written by the atty gen, so it is some authority until ruled upon by a court.)
http://www.texansformarriage.org/doc...sition%202.pdf yes, whoever drafted and proofed this should be fired, but no, Texas did not ban marriage. the whole thing is stupid, and yet another reason I have become disillusioned with politics. |
11-15-2005, 11:14 AM | #44 (permalink) |
Wehret Den Anfängen!
Location: Ontario, Canada
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I was under the impression that the Attourny General of Texas was a partisan, elected, political office? The opinions of a political figure on a matter of politics should be assumed to be political opinions, not expert opinions.
Note that the constitutional amendment, as written, does not ban marriage -- it simply prevents the state of Texas from recognizing the state of marriage. Removing marriage from the domain of the state is one way of protecting it. This is not inconsistent with the legislative history. Not taking the word of the constitution as their guild would be legistlating from the bench. It isn't the job of the judges to say "they didn't mean to write what they wrote, because that would be stupid. We'll pretend they wrote something that makes sense". Are you proposing that if a constituation amendment that stated "Blue is Blue." if it contained a legislative history that indicated that the purpose of the amendment was to ban any party other than the democratic party from holding office, that the judges of the state should ignore the text and follow the nebulous "legislative intent"? The intent of a law should not trump the text of a law. If the amendment was ambiguous, then the judge should examine legislative intent to determine what is going on, and where the boundries are. In what way does marriage differ from marriage? Where is the ambiguity that the judge should clear up? Should the judge simply rewrite the law as idiotic and make up new legislation, and pretend that the state passed that amendment instead of the one they did pass? Marriage is quite clearly identical to marriage. As such, Texas may not recognize marriage, or Texas may cease to pretent to be a constitutional republic.
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Last edited by JHVH : 10-29-4004 BC at 09:00 PM. Reason: Time for a rest. |
11-17-2005, 09:43 PM | #45 (permalink) |
cookie
Location: in the backwoods
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I'm certainly not trying to defend it, but...
yes, the atty gen of tx is elected, but so are tx sup ct justices. That doesn't prevent legal weight from being given to what they write. Usually, people ask for an atty gen opinion to cover their ass or tell them how to proceed if they are doing something that is not clearly legal and has not been addressed by any appellate court. If later they are sued, they can say "But see here, the atty gen opined that it was okay." Atty gen opinions are "persuasive authority" Frankly, this letter should not be considered an official atty gen opinion, as it it is not formatted as such. But you can bet what his official opinion would be. ps. i havent been around much for awhile, but I did donate plenty... what does it take to be tagged as such? |
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