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Someone needs to clear up the "this makes murdered gay people more important than murdered straight people" premise.....I'm fascinated by its absurdity.
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I'd be curious to see the statistics in which these crimes actually have a clear "hate" motivation. My problem with hate crimes is that it's nearly impossible to estabilish intent without a confession, or witnesses testifying that said person was spueing hate speach while committing said crime. Is it possible that alot of people have been charged and convicted for a hate crime for which the victim just happened to be of a different race, creed, sexual orientation and the purpotrator didn't neccessarily commit the crime because of those reasons?
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That's where it gets hairy IMO when it comes to hate crime laws. |
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It is no different than trying to the decide whether the hypothetical brawler should be charged with assault in the first degree and assault in the second degree, or even with sexual assault. The difference in the three types of assault is one of intent. |
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In any case, you've summed up, with hate crimes as an example, one of the problems with all criminal prosecutions: the evidence is often incomplete and biased. |
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As has been pointed out, hate crimes require evidence just as anything else. Doing something bad to a gay person does not make it a hate crime. Doing something bad to a gay person because he is gay does.
As has been noted, different levels of crime based on intent is nothing new whatsoever. Hate crime legislation doesn't make gay people more valuable than straight people any more than the victim of premeditated murder is more valuable than the victim of a crime of passion. If your problem with hate crimes truly is the sense that victims of a crime with the same result are being treated differently, then I can't see any reason why you'd support different degrees of murder either. In all cases, someone is dead. Of course, the legal system isn't your own personal revenge machine, so it doesn't really give a fuck about the victim (at least, it shouldn't). The law is there to judge the criminal and create a safer society for us all to live in. So, we collectively decide that we are generally more forgiving of someone who murders in a crime of passion than someone who commits a premeditated act of murder. Likewise, we collectively decide that crimes against someone specifically because they are a member of an oft-persecuted group should be especially discouraged. Such crimes have a negative psychological effect on the whole group and are particularly detrimental to society. |
I just see an opportunity for abuse of the system. People being charged with hate crimes because of the race, creed, or orientation of the victim, even though the purpotrator may not have had that intention. An over zealous DA can certainly take advantage.
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And the overzealous DA will still have to make the case for intention in a court of law. In any case, again, how is this different from determining the intent in any other case? A person throws a rock, hits the other in the head, killing them. The person who threw the rock can be charged with anything from manslaughter in the third degree to murder in the first, all depending on the intent of the person. |
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In any case, this law isn't contributing to inequality under the law. We can all be victims of hate crimes. |
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Yes I do know that is has been around for quite a while. I'm just of the opinion that in order to irradicate inequality(racism, homophobia etc.) then all must be on an equal footing, not be divided into subgroups under the law. Again just my opinion. |
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ASU2003 said
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