Legality of a revote - Tilted Forum Project Discussion Community

Rekna · 11-11-2006, 09:41 AM

If large anomalies in a vote within the US were found and these anomalies were such that they could not be adjusted for. In addition, it is suspected that these anomalies could have easily changed the election. What is the legality of a revote? Does it depend on the level of the election, ie federal, state, county, and municipal?

I am not trying to imply that any race in the US was or is having problems and i'd like this thread not to go there. Instead I just want to talk about the potential and legality of a revote and the ramifications of such a vote. I am not familiar with in case in history that has had a revote but if someone knows of any cases please post them.

Silvy · 11-11-2006, 05:25 PM

This would indeed be interesting to hear.

I'd assume that that particular election (at the level where an official result is determined*) would be declared void, and that it would have to be re-done.

* with this I mean that for U.S. presidential elections where a single state is full of anomalies, that state may need a new election and not the entire nation. If all anomalies were in a single district, then still the entire state would have to re-vote because there is no official outcome at district-level.
(I hope that made sense).

ratbastid · 11-11-2006, 08:23 PM

Every state has different rules. In some states, each county has different rules. This is one of the reasons our electoral system is in such disarray.

It could well be that calling a re-vote is legal in some localities.

Rekna · 11-11-2006, 10:30 PM

Couldn't a partial revote add its own problems? Say for instance in some election the vote between candidate x and y ends up very close but candidate y won by a half a percent. However, there are major anomalies in one city and this city would normally vote primarily for candidate x. In a revote people would be more likely to show up and vote causing higher voter turnout and more votes for candidate x then he would have received in the original election. Unless of course the vote was restricted to people who voted in the first election.

ratbastid · 11-12-2006, 06:51 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rekna

Couldn't a partial revote add its own problems? Say for instance in some election the vote between candidate x and y ends up very close but candidate y won by a half a percent. However, there are major anomalies in one city and this city would normally vote primarily for candidate x. In a revote people would be more likely to show up and vote causing higher voter turnout and more votes for candidate x then he would have received in the original election. Unless of course the vote was restricted to people who voted in the first election.

Well, I'd think that the new votes would just go into the total. A congressperson is elected based on their total votes, so if a particular county within a congressional district went for a do-over, it would just change the vote total.

By the way, I can't fathom a revote having a strong turnout at all. It would probably be just the retirees and civics teachers.

11-11-2006, 09:41 AM	#1 (permalink)
Rekna Junkie	Legality of a revote If large anomalies in a vote within the US were found and these anomalies were such that they could not be adjusted for. In addition, it is suspected that these anomalies could have easily changed the election. What is the legality of a revote? Does it depend on the level of the election, ie federal, state, county, and municipal? I am not trying to imply that any race in the US was or is having problems and i'd like this thread not to go there. Instead I just want to talk about the potential and legality of a revote and the ramifications of such a vote. I am not familiar with in case in history that has had a revote but if someone knows of any cases please post them.

11-11-2006, 05:25 PM	#2 (permalink)
Silvy paranoid Location: The Netherlands	This would indeed be interesting to hear. I'd assume that that particular election (at the level where an official result is determined) would be declared void, and that it would have to be re-done. with this I mean that for U.S. presidential elections where a single state is full of anomalies, that state may need a new election and not the entire nation. If all anomalies were in a single district, then still the entire state would have to re-vote because there is no official outcome at district-level. (I hope that made sense). __________________ "Do not kill. Do not rape. Do not steal. These are principles which every man of every faith can embrace. " - Murphy MacManus (Boondock Saints)

11-11-2006, 08:23 PM	#3 (permalink)
ratbastid Darth Papa Location: Yonder	Every state has different rules. In some states, each county has different rules. This is one of the reasons our electoral system is in such disarray. It could well be that calling a re-vote is legal in some localities.

11-11-2006, 10:30 PM	#4 (permalink)
Rekna Junkie	Couldn't a partial revote add its own problems? Say for instance in some election the vote between candidate x and y ends up very close but candidate y won by a half a percent. However, there are major anomalies in one city and this city would normally vote primarily for candidate x. In a revote people would be more likely to show up and vote causing higher voter turnout and more votes for candidate x then he would have received in the original election. Unless of course the vote was restricted to people who voted in the first election.