If your using the sociological definition of deviance than why stop with pedophilia and homosexuality. The divorce rate is higher than 50%(this is before those damn homos have had a chance to "ruin" it
) so i guess having a successful marriage can only considered a deviant act. So in those terms, being a member of a successful marriage is in the same category as being pedophile. Is that what you meant by joining homosexuality and pedophilia under the umbrella of deviance? What other definition were you thinking of when you thought of deviance?
There was a point in time, following your use of the concept of deviance, whereby the question "Should interracial relations be considered more "okay" than pedophilia?" would be just as valid as your question. I'm not saying you're racist, just that based on your question you seem to have the same capacity for logical thought.
Sorry if you find that offensive, but that's just my opinion.
Honestly, i find it very difficult to believe that you can't see a difference between homosexuality and pedophilia and i doubt anything i say here could change your mind.