Thanks for making a new thread Parkhurst.
Ok, back to the republic.
In book I, at the end of Plato's debate with Polemarchus, Plato says that the definition of justice being helping one's friends and hurting one's enemies must come from "someone else of wealth and arrogance". Does anyone know why this is?
For no reason at all I'm wondering if it relates back to the conversation Plato had earlier with Cephalus about money helping him be just (telling the trust and paying one's debts).. soo how he has the money to buy things for sacrifices.
Thoughts anyone?
Thank you
