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Which would be a valid point if the bodies of pregnant women were the only bodies involved in the equation.
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In this 'SPECIFIC' equation, there is only one, I believe. Did this guy purposely rape the woman in order to have a child? I highly doubt it. The raped woman is the one who has to go through not only the psychological damage caused by this rape, but she has to carry through with the pregnancy too?
In this case, I believe the man should have absolutely NO bearing on the 'equation' if thats what you want to call it.