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Lebell, Cheerios, chavos:
What you're saying is that the standards of the people for which the Bible was written and ONLY the standards of the people for which it was written in order to determine Biblical morality. That means:
-Goebels advocation of the Holocaust during WWII was morally correct.
-Southern slave holders were correct in their actions, because their society accepted slavery.
-Spaniards were morally correct in their slaughter of Native Americans because that was morally acceptable to Spaniards at the time.
Your moral reasoning is basically flawed, because it absolves people of their overriding responsibilities to mankind in general.
During the Old Testament, God ordered Moses to kill 3,000 people because they attempted to worship an idol. The Book of Esther decries the inherent evil of a woman who refuses to display herself for her husband's dinner guests. How are these to be taken allegorically?
The only way to determine Biblical morality is to examine the Bible, and not the actions of Christians in general. According to you, I have NO responsibility to people of the future and people are essentially absolved of their responsibilities towards other people.
Sorry for lateness in my reply. I've been kind of busy so my reponses may be somewhat delayed.
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