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It is correct in my opinion that rape is defined separately from other sexual assaults.
I do not say this to demean or lessen the impact of being a victim of a different measure of sexual assault - but I would address this in two parts:
1,
To force an individual to engage in oral sex would in my opinion be a serious sexual assault
To force an individual to engage in anal sex would surely be covered by the offence of sodomy, or again a sexual assault.
Anal "sex" and oral "sex" are sexual acts, but do not constitute sexual intercourse.
These offences can be treated, rightly, as just as serious as rape, and the offenders sentenced in the same way, but they are different offences.
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2, To use date rape drugs, intimidation, blackmail, or any other such means to me implies the use of force against an unwilling participant in exactly the same legal sense as brute force. I see no way that the definition posted above could be interprated by a court in today's climate to NOT prohibit drugging a person and raping them.
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I personally find the attitude of the author of the original piece quite offensive. I do not see any requirment to change the terms of the definition under law (which in any case is used for reporting/classification of crime and not the prosecution of crime and protection of citizens)
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"Do not tell lies, and do not do what you hate,
for all things are plain in the sight of Heaven. For nothing
hidden will not become manifest, and nothing covered will remain
without being uncovered."
The Gospel of Thomas
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