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Originally Posted by dksuddeth
not sure i understand. can you explain 'certain categories of people' please.
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Gun Control Act of 1968 - Prohibited Persons - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Basically, the government restricts the ownership of firearms based on certain criteria. I'm not sure the framers would have wanted that, which is why I asked. "Shall not be infringed," and all that. I ask because if we can agree that it's appropriate to bar certain categories of people from owning firearms (not sure you agree with this), then why not restrict the interstate sale of arms privately as well if we can see the benefit?
The act was implemented to regulate the interstate commerce of firearms. Would it not be relatively powerless if you had an interstate "loophole" regarding private sales?
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Originally Posted by Cimarron29414
Canadians, English, Socialists,...
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Oh, I assure you, there are plenty of guns in Canada.