I'm sorry, but this seems to be true of every government ever. Assuming the Jeffersonian concept of "concent" is true (and there are numerous examples of where governments exist outside of the concent of the citizenry), I think you're just pointing out something that's pretty obvious and acknowledged. The US Constitution, as it originally was written with the Bill of Rights, flat out acknowledged this by limiting voting rights to property holders, the idea being that property holders would be more likely to have more educated and long-term grasp of their own self-interest.
This isn't new and it isn't news. Or is there something about this topic that I'm not grasping?
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