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					Originally Posted by  The_Dunedan
					 
				 
				I perceive the Tea Party as having a significant non-white constituency, while others (including most of the media) deny that -any- such constituency of whatever size exists at all. While neither position is objectively provable, one is demonstrably closer to reality than the other. 
			
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 If you deign that your opinion is entirely a perception not based on an objective fact then we agree. That was my point. Though I'm a bit confused by your claim one is 'demonstrably closer to reality'. How would you demonstrate said thing if you admit that it is "an unanswerable question"?  
		
		
		
		
		
			
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