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Originally Posted by dippin
But the issue is one of legitimacy. So the fact that it happened in international waters is certainly relevant. For be it as it may regarding other blockades, it is still a violation of international law.
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Sure, had it happened inside Israeli waters the disproportionate use of force would still be an issue, but it would be a different matter altogether.
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I'm sorry, but I'm afraid that's not quite correct. The enforcement of a blockade in international waters is legal by longstanding precedent.
Q&A: Is Israel's naval blockade of Gaza legal? | Reuters
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Under the law of a blockade, intercepting a vessel could apply globally so long as a ship is bound for a "belligerent" territory, legal experts say.
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The ship had certainly declared that it was on the way to Gaza and intended to break the blockade.
So the location of the incident is irrelevant; what's relevant is the legitimacy of the blockade (whether Israel has the right to impose it, whether Gaza counts as a belligerent territory), and of course its
utility (whether or not Israel has the right, does this course of action make any sense?)
If the blockade is legitimate, then it doesn't matter where it happened - Israel had a right to board the ships.
If it is illegitimate, then it doesn't matter where it happened - Israel had no right to board the ships.