Originally Posted by dksuddeth

yes, really. I broached the subject in this thread because it touches on the first amendment. Martial law has nothing to do with the first amendment, unless it's being used to quell political dissent. If it is, would it be constitutional or legal?

and just because the USSC allows restrictions on our rights for 'reasonable' beliefs does not mean that they are actually legitimate, despite the feelings of those who wish to be subservient to state authority.