Quote:
Originally Posted by ratbastid
He's quoting the 1st Amendment itself. The wording is explicit about that. It reads: "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances."
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Do those rights extend to foreign countries, though? Or is his angle that the Freedom of Speech is that of the networks for airing the ads? I don't get what he's arguing