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Old 12-15-2009, 03:05 PM   #52 (permalink)
The_Dunedan
Junkie
 
I am still waiting for someone to explain to me how, if it is wrong and immoral and illegal for me (an individual) to rob someone at gunpoint (even if I give him some of his money back or buy him a drink afterwards), it is right, moral, and legal for the Government (a mob, a group of individuals) to do so. Every time I ask, the only response I seem to get is "oh not again.*"

Seriously; if it is immoral for an individual to do Thing X, why is it moral for a group of individuals to do Thing X? Because it's popular? Because enough people say so? I've already been informed by one individual here that yes, that's exactly what it is: "political consensus is all that's required." If that's -really- all it takes for an immoral act to become a moral one, what exactly did the Nazis do wrong, or the Soviets, or the Red Guards?



*There, Derwood, now you can save your Snide for someone else.
The_Dunedan is offline  
 

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