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Old 08-28-2009, 09:07 AM   #9 (permalink)
rednelo03
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Well, if Mary had a child by herself, from a science perspective in which there is an explanation, she must have been a hermaphrodite... and by the sex of the offspring, it was a development aberration from the Male XY base (Her nickname in high school was "Manly Mary"). Or... the immaculate conception theory is just a story told by the church to further separate Jesus from the general public. The word "Virgin" back then meant unmarried, not having hymen. This meaning is easily spun if you're trying to sell the no pre-marital sex rule (a strong social control mechanism for the church).

Rabbi:
" So Mary, how did you get pregnant if you're not married to this man?"
Mary:
"Oh, you know... It just happened."
Rabbi:
"Did you hear that? she said it just happened!!! go tell the entire population about this miracle!"
Mary:
"Um... wait, what?"
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