From the Miami Herald article:
Quote:
So when the powers of state united in demanding his ouster, the military put a pajama-clad Zelaya on a plane and sent him to Costa Rica. The rationale: Had Zelaya been jailed, throngs of loyal followers would have erupted into chaos and demanded his release with violence.
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Quote:
The attorney general's office had ordered Zelaya's arrest, and the Supreme Court, Inestroza said, ordered the armed forces to carry it out.
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I might describe the army's actions as extra-legal, rather than illegal. There wasn't alot (or any) precedent for what they wanted to do. And perhaps exiling him was a bad decision, but it appears that allowing him to remain in the country would have been a bad decision as well. I'm still having trouble describing what happened as a coup. If the military starts to exert undue influence over civilian politicians, then it will start looking more like a coup to me. The key to a military coup is the military seizing control of the government, isn't it? So how is it a coup when the military acts entirely at the command of civilian officials.
Another question: Is this more or less of a coup than when Turkey's army acts to preserve their constitution?