I happen to believe that there have been many occurrences of this. Where the man does not wish to be having sex/children, and the women foists it upon him (either through saving his semen in her mouth, or tying him up, or using alcohol, etc. As for the frequency? Quite rare I'd imagine. But the situation has -happened-, and now we're asking what to do about it. I don't think it's juvenile at all to weigh in on it, and it's a rather complicated issue.
I mean, you're taking abortion, which is a complicated issue as it is, and adding in even more entangling variables.
While it's unsavory to force the woman to do anything, you have to consider that she is the rapist in this situation and the man an unwilling accomplice. In cases of rape with women we are even more likely to agree that the decision is 100% hers because she is the victim...how does this logic not follow when reversed?
it's a tough question.
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