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Originally Posted by Infinite_Loser
No, it's not discriminatory because no one, gay, straight or otherwise, has the ability to enter into a same-sex marriage. It's not inherently discriminatory against gays.
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Passing it off as semantics doesn't make it semantics.
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I thought you weren't playing the semantics game.
And you STILL haven't quantified (outside of your slippery slope fallacy) why people shouldn't be allowed to marry someone of the same gender.