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Originally Posted by FoolThemAll
I admitted my unclear terms in that second post, but the first had no such flaws. I never claimed knowledge. You took a clumsy leap to your own little pigeonhole.
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First you said "you don't think "it's a shabby argument" that Jesus didn’t address this issue because the OT already did that. You then changed it to "a viable theory" I asked for clarification because they sounded a lot alike. And you said
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No.
edit: which is to say that there's a sizable difference between those two things, also, that you're not recognizing.
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I'm not leaping into pigeonholes. I trying to understand what you're trying to say.
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Originally Posted by FoolThemAll
Sometime before Jesus was born. I don't have an exact date in my mind. Does this have anything to do with anything I said? Or with something else you'd like to imagine I said?
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Nice, I can't understand your post and I'm imagining things you say.
Just trying to figure out what you consider to be the OT. Are you talking about the Hebrew Bible?