As I understand the main reasons for the proibition of incest are to (1) protect children from their parents (2) children born of parents who are related are more likely to have serious genetic health problems.
Homosexuality does not have any more or less reason to consider the first point than heterosexuality, and homosexuals can of course not have children together.
Therefore the analogy seems to me to be completely false.
It is beyond my understanding why a non homosexual should object to a homosexual's right to marry. I cannot understand any way in which it effects them. Certainly the denial of marriages rights to some adult citizens on the basis of religious prejudice is considered a human rights abuse - and I would expect the UN to take a hostile position to any state which denied homosexual citizens human rights (unfortunately this includes my country, where homosexuals can have "civil unions" but not exactly marriages)
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"Do not tell lies, and do not do what you hate,
for all things are plain in the sight of Heaven. For nothing
hidden will not become manifest, and nothing covered will remain
without being uncovered."
The Gospel of Thomas
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