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but even if that argument held--which leans on the quite non-conservative claim that the american capitalist system was once geared around over-production and required ways to dump that over-production in order to operate at anything like full capacity---which is the war economy argument....even if that held, what possible relation would there be between the 1930s and 40s in terms of geography of production and the contemporary period, which insofar as the united states is concerned in particular, is one of deindustrialization?
this is not unlike the other rb's question above, but gets to another register of problem as well.
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a gramophone its corrugated trumpet silver handle
spinning dog. such faithfulness it hear
it make you sick.
-kamau brathwaite
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