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dc_dux, read your own source document. It describes a 1981 consent decree that prohibits racially driven vote suppression. Unless what is going on now is demonstrably racial, and you have provided no evidence that it is, then the NJ decree is irrelevant even in NJ, much less in FL, which is what the OP is talking about.
Just as an aside: a consent decree is an agreed termination of a lawsuit, ordered by a court, usually at the litigants' request. It typically provides some kind of focused relief based on the allegations of the lawsuit and the particular misconduct alleged in the lawsuit. It's not a universal finding that one or the other side, and any of its affiliates, is bad and is prohibited from doing bad things anywhere in the country in the future. It usually binds only the entities in that lawsuit. If you want to see who the NJ consent decree binds, you have to see who the litigants were. And if you want to see what it prohibits, you have to look at the underlying order. I think you might be ascribing to it a broader effect than it has.
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