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Old 07-04-2008, 09:21 AM   #8 (permalink)
roachboy
 
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so presumably there's no legal basis for disarming gangs in a city, based on this reading of the second amendment--i mean, what's the difference between a militia and a gang, really, except that presumably one approves at some level of a militia and does not approve of a gang?


so let's see: the constitution was ratified in 1791.
this is 2008.
what's changed in the interim?
well, one thing that's changed is the development of a modern state. and one of the things that defines the modern state is its "monopoly on legitimate violence"....
maybe the second amendment is among the more entirely time-bound elements of the constitution, speaking *entirely* to 1791 and not at all to conditions that obtain now.
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