Quote:
Originally posted by smooth
What, in your opinion, is the reasoning behind the framers writing a rule into the proceedings that mandates how many people have to be present before business can be conducted?
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My guess would be to prevent a handful of legislators to run the government in the event that many others are involuntarily unavailable (war, famine, natural disaster). I somehow doubt (silly me) that it would be written in there to allow childish legislators to skip town if something isn't going their way.
I'm sure that the framers are rolling around in their graves at the suggestion that this was appropriate use of said loophole.