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Originally Posted by reconmike
I wasn't ignoring your question DC, your graph shows investigations AND indictments, I want to find a graph of just investigations and just indictments,
to base my judgement if there is any bias.
Reason being is that if the dems were investigated 100 times in 2007 and there were 5 indictments, and there were 25 repub investigations and 0 indictments,that might warrant saying that they could have been politicly motivated.
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mike.....that seems like convoluted reasoning to me.
Why should Dems even be investigated 4x as often as Repubs, if not for political purposes...even if indictment rates were closer to parity?
From the Shields study/article:
"The disparity between investigation and/or indictments of Democrats in relation to Republicans is statistically significant and could have occurred by chance in less than one in 10,000 samplings."
FYI....there has never been that kind of disparity in DoJ investigations/indictments in recent past administrations, Dem or Repub. This is unique to Bush/Ashcroft/Gonzales.
It still doesnt sound like a "wee bit' to me under any circumstances.