A friend of mine posed the "When does personal preference become discrimination?" And I was stuck. I know that at some point preference becomes discrimination in it's more "socially accepted" definition, but I also feel like preference IS discrimination, only it has the benefit of experience while discrimination needs none.
I prefer to be around funny and interesting people does that mean that I am discriminate against boring, angry and uninteresting people?
I prefer to never have to eat a banana, and I throw out any bananas that come my way - after stepping on them until they become baby food - am I discriminating against them?
Quote:
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Originally Posted by oxford american dictionary
Preference
1. a greater liking for one alternative over another or others
2. Law a prior right or precedence, esp. in connection with the payment of debts
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by oxford american dictionary
Discrimination
1. the unjust or prejudicial treatment of different categories of people or things, esp. on the grounds of race, age, or sex
2. recognition and understanding of the difference between one thing and another
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My questions: Do you believe that personal preference only becomes discrimination when it deals with people (as is my understanding from the definitions) or is there more to it? Can discrimination exist if there are no "unjust" treatment? Can preference indeed have "prejudicial" aspect to it?
*I hope I am posting this in the right spot. I had a hard time choosing between "philosophy" and "life."