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Originally Posted by mixedmedia
uh, I think that would mean he is misinterpreting me.
Broader sexual attitudes could mean any number of things.
He was quite specific in his interpretation of that. That being, if a man is not turned off by the taste of his own semen, he must be bisexual. Not much to misinterpret there.
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I'm not considering tasting ones own semen as a sexual avenue, therefore the sexual avenue to be opened would be some sort of bisexuality. Note the op said 'tasting his own' and I can only assume that means semen.
To me there is nothing sexual about tasting your own semen anymore than say tasting your own urine.
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Originally Posted by ngdawg
A friend just pointed this out to me: His question: "How can a guy say something like, "I wouldn't kiss you if you put that in your mouth?" if it is that gross, then why would you let your girlfriend do it?"  |
Because its obviously not gross to her. I know women who don't like it in their mouth, should they be forced to do it if they don't care for it? Then why should a guy?