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Originally Posted by randygurl
I would be more than happy to shed some enlightenment on this - don't get me wrong - its just that at this moment I don't have the time (I'm at work) but I will go home tonight, do a little bit of reading and formulate a more in depth response for you tomorrow...stay tuned  |
I am not saying this to be snarky, but is there a reason why you adhere more strongly to the vaguely interpreted "abstain from blood" portion of Acts 29, and not the very specific "sexual immorality" portion? (other than convenience, or not having an opportunity to fully internalize what rejecting a transfusion could mean) Is this a common way to 'weight' the offenses, so to speak?