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Originally Posted by Racnad
The fact that a man has to be erect for vaginal sex would raise significant doubt in any jury being asked to believe that a man did not consent to having sex. I would think that a married man who firmly didn't want to cheat would likey not have an erection if a powerful woman were trying to get his penis into her - but not having been in that situation, I'm not sure.
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This assumes that an erection is a conscious decision. In my experience (read: EXTENSIVE), it's not always something where you go, "Alright, GO!" and it inflates. It's a natural reaction to stimulation of some kind. Also,m as I've said, arousal isn't something that can be used in cases where women are raped to suggest it's consensual. I googled this the other day and found a story where a woman had been raped by her boyfriend. He knew what she liked so he was able to make her climax. Does that make it any less of a rape, though? Absolutely not, imo.