I guess my concern comes from this statement you made:
Quote:
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There are cases of rape in which women become aroused or even orgasm (which can lead to terrible guilt later, something you learn when you volunteer as a crisis counselor), which isn't their fault.
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This concerns me because it seems that you're using one example from your experience, some research at school (I'm not sure what constitutes "some"), and what you say is common sense. It seems as if you're going from, "There was this one time..." to "There are cases...in which..."
To be honest, I don't think it could be called common sense to think that a woman would orgasm while being raped. I'm not a woman so I don't know to what extent the female orgasm is a physical response to a traumatic experience.
While you have nothing to prove to me, I'm just curious to know where your information comes from. It helps me frame my discussion a little better.