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Originally Posted by j8ear
I'm not following your BoRights logic here.
First, the Bill of rights applied to the people. Not the feds. It restricted what any legislature could do to the people.
The "constitution" determined what the feds ~could~ do....and left everything else to the states, except as restricted by the Bill of Rights.
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Why do you think that the BoR restricted what "any legislature" could do to the people instead of what I claimed...that it restricted the *federal* government?
This leads you to say that, with the exception of the Consitution, everything was left to the states, "except" the BoR.
Why do you think this to be true?