Nimetic

I don't know if that's your training kicking in or what - but it's not convincing to me. This looks like a dump from a book.

Occams razor applies here. The rapist has a sex drive. The rapist has "sexual intercourse" with the victim, something that we normally simply label "sex".

So we should accept the obvious answer - until such time as we have clear evidence and studies to the contrary.

And lets look further at the sex drive. Lets suppose that a rapist takes a drug that blocks their sex drive... does this or does this not reduce the likelihood of them raping more victims. It'd be an illuminating study to do I think.

This is an interesting point...

But it leaves me with a vision of soldiers committing wartime atrocities or prisoners raping prisoners, while fantasizing about their high-school sweetheart or teacher... (in order to maintain an erection). Which is just too paradoxical for me to comprehend.

No - I think that these people must have some serious violent urge, plus a sexual one. If they get an erection - then surely this is (would you say?) an 'ipso facto' proof of a sexual component to the act?

I'd be interested in a link - if you find a functional one.

One study is purely noise of course in the academic background of course. (Particularly in this type of field which is surely relatively subjective.) But you never know... I occasionally change my mind.