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I don't think you can say that someone without desires is just numb. It's kinda like the old saying, "The grass is always greener..." except in reverse. You can't say that if you have no desires at all is complete happiness because you don't know what that's like. Only someone who has truly experienced both sides of that coin can say at what point he was more happy. I tend to agree with rogue49 that passion reminds us that we are alive, I am also human and far from desireless. However I don't know that it wouldn't mean that I would be happy if I didn't have any desires.
Let's do this logically...
A man who has no desires is:
1.) unable to change.
He has no desire to change, if he has any motivation that would drive him away from this situation he is immediately disqualified.
2.) content.
...if not happy. We at least know he is content with his situation.
3.) cannot be denied.
...because without any motivations for his own happiness he cannot be denied anything.
Therefore we know that anyone who can answer this question (i.e. has experienced both sides of this controversy.) must currently have no desires. (as proven by statement 1.)
However we do know how he will answer. He will answer that he is happy. So, the only answer we can glean from informed opinion is that the path of no desires is the correct way to go.
Now... the question is did the man truly experience fullfillment through meeting his desires before he chose a path of no desire at all?
We are now left with 3 options:
1.) He did and has chose this path because the lack of fullfilled desires drove him to this path and the amount of dissapointment that he has faced outwieghed the happiness that he ever felt.
2.) He did and he chose this for no other reason than that one can be truly happy with a path that has no desires.
3.) He didn't and his opinion cannot be regarded as valid because he did not truly experience the other option.
So... there you have it. Some logic.
Not exactly sure what that proves, but... there you have it.
Golux
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