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I'm hesitant to call what happened to abaya rape.
She did not give her consent, or at least didn't, in the sense that an underage person didn't, even if they said yes. However, if there is rape, then would there not also be a rapist? A rapist would be one who intentionally has sex, knowing no consent had been given. Now from what I've read, the man involved thought he had consent, and may not have continued if he thought that abaya didn't want it to continue. So we have a person who was raped (did not give consent), but not a rapist (was given consent). How does one resolve that conflict?
As usual, alcohol confuses an otherwise clear situation.
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"Oh, irony! Oh, no, no, we don't get that here. See, uh, people ski topless here while smoking dope, so irony's not really a high priority. We haven't had any irony here since about, uh, '83 when I was the only practitioner of it, and I stopped because I was tired of being stared at."
Omnia mutantu, nos et mutamur in illis.
All things change, and we change with them.
- Neil Gaiman, Marvel 1602
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