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Originally Posted by Sharon
And it's a lot harder to produce evidence when the accusation is sexual. What about my friend who got himself blown by a chick who later claimed it wasn't consensual? In this case it's pretty much all a matter of her-word-against-his, and I'm willing to guess it's going to either come down to character witnesses or a presumption of guilt / innocence kind of thing. There is no evidence to consider, really.
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Sharon, you say that "it's a lot harder to produce evidence when the accusation is sexual" as if it supports how much rape laws can be abused when, in fact, the opposite is true. I don't know how things are in the UK but in the US of A you are innocent until proven guilty. That means that you can only be convicted of rape if actual evidence proves it. So, falsely accusing someone of rape ultimately does little good.
I've never understood why people think trials are a toss up. They are not. In the US, The odds of getting a conviction are stacked heavily against the state. Are things that different in the UK, Sharon?
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Originally Posted by abaya
Yeah, that's pretty much what I did. I wasn't working as a stripper, but I was drunk out of my skull in New Orleans. Not to mention there were absolutely no witnesses (and my "acquaintances" surely didn't give a shit). All the evidence pointed to it being consensual, even though I never would have given consent. But the question remains, is it "rape" if the woman had no chance/ability to say yes OR no? And if no one was there to hear her say either word, how does it stand up in court?
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abaya, maybe you didn't read (or understand) my earlier post but I assure you that sex without consent is, by definition, rape...