abaya

Yeah, that's pretty much what I did. I wasn't working as a stripper, but I was drunk out of my skull in New Orleans. Not to mention there were absolutely no witnesses (and my "acquaintances" surely didn't give a shit). All the evidence pointed to it being consensual, even though I never would have given consent. But the question remains, is it "rape" if the woman had no chance/ability to say yes OR no? And if no one was there to hear her say either word, how does it stand up in court?

I don't see it as a thread derailment... I think real-life examples are extremely relevant, given that this is mostly a discussion among men about how to define rape of a woman. Most of you are keeping this in the abstract. Bring it down to the reality level. What kind of call would you make in mine, or Sharon's situation? This is that part of the TFP where you say what you "really think," no holds barred.

EDIT: Missed your post, Hal... thanks for the addendum. I admit, it's a bit weird to hear someone calling my situation outright "rape." I've never used that word when talking about it, except in this thread. I have to say, though, that even though you assume that both people are in full mental capacity... I really doubt that is what happens in a LOT of rape cases (especially unreported ones). As a woman who did something that helped precipitate that consequence (e.g. I got totally drunk), I and maybe others find it difficult to point the finger entirely at the man. Not that it would have been proven, anyway.

__________________
And think not you can direct the course of Love;
for Love, if it finds you worthy, directs your course.
--Khalil Gibran