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Originally Posted by FoolThemAll
Sure, why not? I won't stand in your way.
But questioning whether slavery meant the same thing back then isn't the same as questioning whether the bible's 100% true. You give the choice of a fallible bible or "slavery is okay", but you're ignoring at least two other possibilities: fallible translations and fallible interpreters.
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But Christians swear that the bible is 100% true and correct. Fallible translations and interpreters makes the bible fallible. If the word slavery appears in the bible and is wrong, then part of the bible is wrong, which negates the perfect bible theory.