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Originally Posted by willravel
That's an interesting thought that never occoured to me. As I remember, the NKJ bible was completed in 1982 and the NIV bible was completed in 1985. The definition of slavery has not changed since then. I can only conclude that when the word slavery is used in the bible I read, it is meant to convey the same definition that can be read in our dictionaries.
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Or the translations in 82/85 were flawed. I remember hearing that one version of the bible actually uses the word 'homosexuality', even though the term is a recent invention and often/usually is used to refer to the characteristic, not the choice. Translations deserve a skeptical eye, especially translations of highly debated books like the Bible.