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Originally Posted by FoolThemAll
But if the Bible's using the word in a different way than that listed in the dictionary, then referencing the dictionary is a mistake. The dictionary isn't necessarily helpful here.
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That's an interesting thought that never occoured to me. As I remember, the NKJ bible was completed in 1982 and the NIV bible was completed in 1985. The definition of slavery has not changed since then. I can only conclude that when the word slavery is used in the bible I read, it is meant to convey the same definition that can be read in our dictionaries.