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Originally Posted by filtherton
The right to property? Is that where you can do whatever you want on your own property or is that where you have the right to own whatever property you want? As far as i know, neither of them exist.
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With some obvious caveats (you have to purchase/receive the property in order to have the right to it, you're responsible for costs imposed without consent on property that isn't yours), both.
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Public defecation: we could all avoid the harm caused by it so we should always be able to do it. Tell me what's wrong with that sentence.
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Nothing. Sorry if I wasn't clear, but I've said before in this thread that people should be held responsible for the external costs they create - costs that affect property that isn't theirs.
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I imagine your tune would change if you had asthma.
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Nope.
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It really all depends on who you let define your rights. Even on your own property you can't do whatever the hell you want.
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No, even on your own property, you can't do damage to property that isn't yours. Unless, of course, the property owner consents to the damage. Explicitly or implicitly.
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Well, in practice, the right to property doesn't really mean all that much. This is where we agree to disagree.
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Rights aren't 'is'-statements, rights are 'ought'-statements. So it's very possible that rights aren't upheld in practice. This doesn't diminish their meaning.
If we can't agree that a right to property exists, then sure, we're at a standstill.
But I'd like you to address this, because I'm wondering where our disagreement really lies:
Hypothetical: A property owner turns his property into a private club that sells food to its members. The only requirement for membership is a willingness to tolerate indoor cigarette smoke. In all other respects, it's identical to those restaurants that are no longer allowed to allow smoking.
Do you have a problem with such a place?
And what substantial difference is there between this hypothetical and the restaurants that previously allowed smoking before the ban?