Being neither homosexual, nor christian, I can not say I've done too much research on the subject myself, but here's a couple of things I spotted while reading the thread.
In one post I found this:
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Didn't you dispute Biblical fallibility above? I made reference to not believing in Biblical inerrancy, and you debated with me on that point.
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No, I didn't dispute anything which you. I was mearly pointing out that if you believe that the Bible is inerrant, then there is no possible way that you could try to condone homosexuality while using it as the basis for your argument.
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and in the same post,
above this, I found:
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God wrote the Bible through humans. Since God is incapable of lying, the Bible is without error. We know that the following is true because the Bible says so. God's word is the same today and it was yesterday, therefore it's not up for interpretation.
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and in an earlier post:
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A bit of circular logic here, but one of the underlying principals of Christianity is that God commanded people to write the Bible. Since God is infallible, the Bible is true and without error. To claim that the Bible is erroneous in some area would be to claim that God is prone to human error.
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Which is it? Do you disptute biblical fallibility or not?
This does however bring up the other point. If you believe the bible might be incorrect in any way, then this arguement is pointless. As we have seen, two people can take what is suppose to be the same thing, and get different things out of it. You end up saying "The bible might not be right, but I'll use it to back up my statements", which isn't good logic.
What really annoys me is all the assuptions.
Gilda assumes that the condemnations of certain homosexual acts are specific to those acts only.
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Certain male-male homosexual acts are addressed, but homosexuality itself is not, and discussiono female homosexual acts is absent.
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Infinite_Loser assumes that those condemnations extend to all homosexual acts, and to homosexuality.
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Condemnation equals condemnation. Both in the Hebrew texts and the translated books of the Bible, homosexuality as a whole is condemned. You are assuming that God didn't mean all forms of homosexuality and the problem you have is that there is no evidence that this is what was meant.
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While it seems there is insufficiate evidence to make a claim either way, I think the burden of proof is upon Infinite_Loser.
And of course, make sure arguements that are suppose to be supported by the bible, make claims of what is
in the bible, not that which
is not in the bible (i.e. "The bible doesn't condone, there for it condemns." This is not good logic either)