Originally Posted by roachboy

if a state engaged in the practices walmart did in the context of pan's rubbermaid example, that state would be accused--rightfully--of dumping.
the premise of dumping regulations is that it is understood as a fundamentally unfair trade practice.
which means that there is at some level an assumption concerning fairness in trading that is built into the rules that shape capitalist activity.
the question of why the state can be guilty of dumping can be linked to that of scale: the state operates with resources that enable firms that benefit from them to engage in unfair forms of competition--like selling good below the cost of production.

walmart exploits its scale to absorb losses they might incurby selling rubbermaid goods below cost. because walmart is not a state apparatus, legally it is not dumping--but it is a good example of predatory pricing practices. which walmart is famous for.

are the only limits of capitalist activity what is illegal?
does the standard of fairness in trade apply only to states?
beyond that anything goes?
how is that functional?
how is that fair?