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The OT arguments don't work well either way. The problem is that, unlike the kosher laws, it's unclear whether the proscriptions on homosexuality are part of the purity laws (in which case they wouldn't apply), or are part of the moral law (in which case they would). Like you say, the NT is also ambiguous. "Homosexuality" as we understand it today either didn't exist or wasn't recognized in the first century world. So the proscriptions in the NT can be read as simply proscribing, say, visiting a temple prostitute or being effeminate, as you note.
The simplest argument, for those who believe that scripture also prohibits premarital sex, is to show that Christian marriage is only between a man and a woman, so any homosexual sexual activity must be illicit.
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"Die Deutschen meinen, daß die Kraft sich in Härte und Grausamkeit offenbaren müsse, sie unterwerfen sich dann gerne und mit Bewunderung:[...]. Daß es Kraft giebt in der Milde und Stille, das glauben sie nicht leicht."
"The Germans believe that power must reveal itself in hardness and cruelty and then submit themselves gladly and with admiration[...]. They do not believe readily that there is power in meekness and calm."
-- Friedrich Nietzsche
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